Veri I edited my previous post.
Right now you're the one calling us biased which would be "evident" from our posts, just pointing that out.
What do you exactly define as "sexual" pleasure? Because there are people that get "sexual" pleasure from things like bondage, where you basically only tie up the other person.
Yeah but that's a corruption. This is evidenced by the fact that the sexual act, whatever it may be (we are not assuming anything yet) is fulfilled through ejaculation. The ejaculation itself cannot be consciously controlled, and we are not satisfied until it is achieved. The condition informally known as 'blue balls' is where pain is felt in the sack is a result of prolonged stimulation without ejaculation. All this points to the fact that the point of sexual stimulation is to result in the ejaculation.
Now the purpose of the ejaculation is to procreate, that is evident. It is the only purpose the sperm serves. Not only that, but the insertion of the ***** into the ****** is instinctual, and the ****** is the
only place where the sperm has any effect and because we have already established that the point of the act is to ejaculate, this is how I concluded what the 'natural act' was.
So to those people who thought my argument was ciruclar, it clrealy isn't, because I've just justified how I arrived at what the natural act is.
This is the (part of your) essay where you describe why humans can do "wrongs"
Why must all beings that lack this moral capacity you describe be purely means to an end? Why can't those beings flourish as ends in themselves?
Because as the paragraph shows, they can't change what end they contribute to. Take a coffee machine for example. It is designed for a specific purpose, it can't change what it does, the only things that can change what it dos are external factors, it can't change on its own accord. Humans can.
EDIT: also, how would replacing "humans" with "monkeys" make this paragraph incorrect? because the only requirement would be the moral capacities you don't explain further.
Sorry I don't understand what you are saying here. If you re-word it I can answer it lol.
Now correct me if I'm wrong but your argument goes as follows:
-Homosexual intercourse is providing said persons with sexual pleasure.
-This sexual pleasure is (a mechanism) is a stimulus for procreation.
-Procreation is an objective good
-Homosexuals are not using the sexual pleasure for its intended goal, which happens to be an objective good, and therefore corrupt their nature.
The first point stands or falls on the definition of sexual pleasure (see beginning), but in general I agree with the first 3 points.
The last point I can't really address since I (a probably others here too) don't know much about nature philosophy.
could you expand some more on what this corrupting of nature is, and maybe give an example or 2?
(living is and objective good therefore murder is a corruption, yes. but maybe something more subtle)
That's the closest someone has come to defining my argument, and you did it pretty well, but you're slightly off.
The reason why homosexuality is wrong is because they are not practicing the natural act. The problem is that sexual pleasure is meant for procreation, therefore it should only be practised in the natural act.
Now I've explained above that sexual pleasure is meant for procreation, and the only act which achieves that is the natural sexual act. Now because this is the natural act, it is good to practise it, but homosexuality is taking sexual pleasure, which I've shown is only meant to be in the natural act, and puts it in an unnatural act, and that is where the wrongdoing is.
I hope that made sense for everyone.