I see what you're driving at. Let me make sure I get this straight.
You are saying that everything is based on past experience, and since empirical methods of reasoning rely on past experience that everything we do is empirically based.
The only problem I see with this is that empirical methods of reasoning are strictly limited to this. It's so natural to use rational thought after making observations that we misconceive these two things as one in the same thing.
That’s the thing. Does not the idea of “rational thought” take predication in there being observations and experiences to work on and from? After all, how does one form a thought, and determine a rational one, without calling upon a store of experience and observations to shape it and give it context?
Also, pointedly, the seat of what we call “rational thought”, the prefrontal cortex, was shaped by evolutionary “experiences” (so to speak), honing it into the tool it is today. Regardless, the brain still operates on levels of feedback, via stimuli and other neurons. There is always a level of receiving information and feedback, which is essentially the point of empiricism.
We know there is a person named Guest because we see this person and at some point in the past, he may have told us his name. As I said, I don't deny that we use empirical thinking, but we can't tie empirical thinking together without non-empirical thinking as I'll show below.
The idea of "brother" in yours and my case is from past experience, but how did the people who came up with the word "brother" get the idea of it's implications and uses? There was no prior experience of the word to be associated with. That seems to be the problem with most empirical methodology. It can't explain how we dealt with "firsts" in the world.
Actually, I beg to differ. I think empiricism does not fail to account to dealing with new or novel ideas. It simply says that we use the observations and experiences we receive to inform our thinking and development of knowledge. We are perfectly free to organize and combine together the observations and experiences we have of different things into a novel idea or action.
In fact, the brain itself works in this fashion.
http://neuronarrative.wordpress.com/2009/03/23/this-is-your-brain-on-the-edge-of-chaos/
It is structured in such a way that the neural networks of the brain are arranged into what is called a “critical state” of organization. It is a system that teeters on the edge of order, barely holding itself from collapsing into disorder and utter randomness. This allows the brain to achieve, on one-hand, a level of structure and orderliness so that it can keep its information coherent, but allows it the dynamic function of being able to make connections and synthesize together information that would otherwise not be linked up in a more rigidly structured system.
http://theness.com/neurologicablog/?p=500
This is also evident in the fact that the brain often gets influenced by factors that would otherwise make little to no sense for a particular decision making process.
http://www.ratracetrap.com/the-rat-...isions-anchoring-and-arbitrary-coherence.html
Between those phenomena, I believe it is evident that empiricism can deal with “firsts” and novel ideas. However, as should be obvious, there is a caveat to the benefits of such a capricious system, since it becomes very easy to be misled, or produce faulty decisions and conclusions. That is why we need a more methodical system such as science, to ensure that we can maximize its useful nature, while minimizing the misleading parts.
As another example with the past experience idea, lets take the idea of conditioning. If someone gets shocked for reaching out for an apple enough times, eventually they associate reaching out for apples with getting shocked. Now without breaking that down it looks like it confirms exactly what you said about empiricism being at the base of all this because the person is using past experience, but consider this:
The first time this happens:
1. Person reaches for apple.
2. Person gets shocked.
There's no past experience to go from. The person can make these observations:
"I reached for an apple"
"I was shocked"
That's all the person can say right now.
Second Time
1. Person reaches for apple.
2. Person is shocked.
The person can only make the same observations he/she made last time:
"I reached for an apple"
"I was shocked"
Third Time:
1. Person reaches for apple
2. Person is shocked
Once more they make the same observations.
"I reached for an apple"
"I was shocked"
nth time:
1. Person reaches for apple
2. Person is shocked
The person makes the same observations:
"I reached for an apple"
"I was shocked"
The person by this time uses past experience to make another observation
"Every time I reached for an apple I was shocked"
However, without the use of logic, he can't piece two and two together and say
"Every time I reached for an apple I was shocked. Being shocked brings me pain. Therefore reaching for an apple brings me pain. Pain means something unwanted is happening to me, so I don't want to experience pain. Therefore I should not reach for apples because they bring me pain."
All the "therefore"s show how non-empirical thinking binds together pieces of empirical thinking. If I just went with everything the person experienced during this time I would get.
1."I reached for an apple"
2."I was shocked"
3."Every time I have reached for the apple I have been shocked"
The person cannot say this:
"Every time I reach for an apple I will be shocked" Sure the person is using past experience, but the person is also using probability, which is mathematics. He's also having to use logic to piece together the first two observations along with the third observations to make the conjecture about what will happen in a future occurrence which he/she has not made an observation of yet. That also explains exactly why math and logic are non-empirical.
This might be the case, if we could only process a single train of thought at a time. Thankfully, that is not the case, and in actuality we have a very multi-faceted brain, that preforms all sorts of calculations and processes simultaneously amongst all its respective parts and networks.
Not only do we have a section of the brain that seems to activate in response to causal events (
http://eprints.ucl.ac.uk/4136/), but when the person reached forward with the intention of grabbing the apple, activating a set of neural networks, but then got shocked, activating another, other neurons and neural networks will link the two sets together, so that when one fires, the other will fire in sympathy. The two events then become bound together, literally, in our mind, though generally weakly at first, since it only happened once. But with each subsequent repetition, the bond will become stronger, therefore leading to a stronger association between the two events. All in response to stimuli and our experience with it.
The very idea of using probability is based upon experience and observation, especially in this case. You are using the experience and observations you have accrued in this situation to inform expected experiences in the future. They wouldn’t be of much use if they couldn’t inform future decisions. You quickly learn as a child, from feedback and genetic predisposition, to be on the lookout for patterns in the stimuli we receive. This would be a case of that.
You also didn’t show any reasoning for why math and logic are non-empirical, but rather that math and logic takes place of empirical reasoning in your example, but they do not. How else do you determine what is mathematically and logically palatable, other than through experience and feedback, often from using them incorrectly at first?
How did people recognize errors in logic when they first came up, they didn't have past experience to use.
I don't deny that science has an empirical base, I do deny that it's the only base. Consider Calculus, if Calculus only had a base in Algebra then you can't completely solve every problem. Such as find the derivative of the line that is the altitude of triangle CAT. The connection tying the two before you try to hit me with my post being irrelevant is that both problems start at the same step. Science starts at observation, and that Calculus problem starts at an Algebra step. But pure observation and experience can't solve the scientific question because you'll just have facts and nothing to piece them together; just as in the Calculus problem if you used only algebra, then you can't find the altitude of triangle CAT so you can't solve the problem.
Because, people never experience things in a vacuum, they have other people and a dynamic environment. These will all feedback into adjusting our experience with using and handling logic. Do we not all make logical mistakes at times? Yet, if logic was not answerable to observation and experience, how would we ever fix them?
Also, there is the fact that people can, and often do, make judgements on bad logic, known or unknown. However, it will soon come to be rectified by the experience they receive after attempting to employ that logic in a given situation, and it resulting in an unexpected or unfavorable conclusion. It would then cause them to have to realize that something about the logical tree they used was off or wrong entirely (whether they deduce the correct part or not and fix it beneficially is a whole other story though).
The distinction between algebra and calculus is purely an arbitrary one, something simply set in place by teachers and mathematicians. One that you have picked up, ironically enough, through experience. It’s all math, with all the same underlying principals; there is no clean distinction between where “algebra” or “geometry” ends, and “calculus” begins. That’s just a false dichotomy.
The piecing together of facts is something that is achieved by the nature of the brain, which is, convolutedly, shaped and wired by the very acquisition of them, due to the structure of it. It is this nature of plasticity that makes it so hard to tell where the end between nature and nurture is in that argument.
Reaver we're not saying that the use of philosophical logic permits doubt of science, because that would be illogical.
As Guest said, humans are also designed to use reason.
For example, the world may only be 400 years old, and given us the illusion of it existing for billions of years.
If we accept that there is no illusion, then science can prove that the world has in fact existed for billions of years. But science can't tell us whether there was an illusion or not, it's our pure reason which concludes it is more logical to believe there is no illusion at play.
The example above indicates that the premise that our perception correlates accurately to an external world or reality comes from pure reason, and then from where we use science to attain various truths about that external world.
So again, no one here has anything against science, we're just saying it isn't the only thing that concludes truth.
We are “designed” to use reason by virtue of the fact that evolutionary feedback dictated its usefulness to survive; in essence, the “experience” of creatures before us led to the development of our current sense of reason. Our use of logic is founded and tempered by experience.
If we had grown up in a world where it is commonly accepted that there is something beyond what we can immediately see, we wouldn’t find it logically unacceptable to buy into it as well, as it so happens in many areas around the world with regards to heavens and hells. How else could reason be so capricious, if it does not get influenced by the observation and experience that we obtain from the world.
There is also nothing to say that logically palatable necessarily means it is true. Like, with children and Santa Claus. How do you demonstrate logic leads to to truth other than observing it does?
Also, you seem to be talking as if there are “truths” definitively known and arrived at. There really isn’t at all, just simply approximations that have corresponding levels of accuracy and how probable they are.
I think you guys are missing the point of what Dre's saying, and the point is well taken.
Basically, prove that your senses are giving you correct information. Anyone?
There isn’t any definitive way to “prove” that senses give accurate or correct information, but when taken in collaboration of others, we can start to setting how probable it is if everyone ascertains them a particular way.
The issue is, as I’ve stated before, that this also drags up that the notion that the senses giving correct information is disprovable. But that raises the paradox of using the brain to disprove senses through the use of its senses.
Here’s a metaphor that might help explain my stance.
Say you have a computer, and you tell this computer “figure out how you calculate things”. The computer performs calculations, can look at other computers calculating, and then comes back with the result that it computes, and so do other computers, through binary. Then you go “but, hey, you used binary to compute you used binary, you can’t do that.” “You have to use something other than binary to prove you use binary”. The poor computer then can’t do anything. You are asking something that is literally impossible for it to comply to.
A similar thing to say would be to go to humans and say “you use carbon-based neurons to reason and gain knowledge, how do you prove that carbon-based neurons can accurately gauge or be reflective of the world?”.
It’s pretty much a meaningless question to ask, since it can’t be taken anywhere or have anything done with it. Either it is true, or it's false and the very act of positing that question gets undermined.
Edit: I hope this doesn't just lead to longer and longer posts, lol.
Also, this.
http://www.smbc-comics.com/index.php?db=comics&id=2039