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Need Math Help?

Agi

Smash Lord
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Jul 27, 2008
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SE Washington
Okay... I missed two days of my calc class due to a field trip, and now I'm lost. We're currently working on "Differential Equations: Separation of Variables," and I can't even do the first problem. If someone can help me get it, I'm sure the rest will follow...

Verify the solution of the Differential Equation.

Solution

y = Ce^(4x)

Differential Equation

y' = 4y


If someone could just point me in the right direction, that'd be great... :urg:
 

Nintendude

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Location
San Francisco
Okay... I missed two days of my calc class due to a field trip, and now I'm lost. We're currently working on "Differential Equations: Separation of Variables," and I can't even do the first problem. If someone can help me get it, I'm sure the rest will follow...

Verify the solution of the Differential Equation.

Solution

y = Ce^(4x)

Differential Equation

y' = 4y


If someone could just point me in the right direction, that'd be great... :urg:
Well,what you got is dy/dx = 4y. The first thing you want to do is separate the variables, meaning get all the y's on one side and the x's on the other. So, first divide both sides by y and multiply both sides by dx, giving:

dy/y = 4dx

Now integrate both sides, yielding:

ln(y) = 4x + C

To get y by itself, raise everything to the e (e^ln(y) = y). Now you have:

y = e^(4x + C)

This can be expanded to:

y = (e^4x)(e^C)

Now e^C is really just any constant, just like C by itself is, so you can just change e^C to C, giving the final answer:

y = Ce^4x
 

ColinJF

Smash Ace
Joined
Dec 21, 2007
Messages
712
Okay I'll answer your question.

First of all, your question as stated is

(x/x+1)^x as x -> infinity

This limit does not exist since it simplifies to 2^x which obviously is unbounded. However, I am going to assume that you actually meant this limit which has a more interesting answer:

(x/(x+1))^x as x -> infinity

Second, your naive analysis involving loose use of infinities is not the right way to go about it; it is going to get you nowhere. The answer is neither 0 nor 1.

For the sake of solving the question, we assume that the right hand side of L'Hospital's rule exists; if we later find its value the assumption is vindicated.

To apply L'Hospital's rule, we first note that [x/(x+1)]^x = (x^x)/(x+1)^x. Now we write down the derivative of both the top and bottom of this fraction.

derivative of x^x = (e^(x log x))(log x + 1)

derivative of (x+1)^x = (e^(x log(x + 1)))(log(x + 1) + x/(x+1))

If we assume that both the limits on the right hand side exist, we can now write down

lim[x/(x+1)]^x = lim[(e^(x log x))/ (e^(x log(x + 1)))] * lim[(log x + 1)/(log(x+1)+x/(x+1))

The second limit on the right is easily seen to be 1 as x -> infinity, so the value of the original limit (which appears on the left) is entirely decided by the first limit on the right, which we can rewrite (by using the theorem e^a/e^b = e^(a-b)) as

lim[e^(x log(x/(x+1)))] = e^lim[x log(x/(x+1))] if the inner limit exists

To solve this new limit, we write it as

lim[log(x/(x+1))/(1/x)]

and then apply L'Hospital's rule again to get

lim[-1/(1+1/x)]

as x -> infinity, this is clearly -1.

Above we saw that the original limit was equal to e^lim[x log(x/(x+1))] and we now know this is e^-1.

So the answer to your question is 1/e which is approximately 0.36787944117144....
 

Corpsecreate

Smash Lord
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Australia, Perth
Seeing all these numbers written by keyboard at 2:23am is pretty scary. I cant completely follow what you've done right now but through substituting a large number for X and graphing it, it does seem like it approaches 1/e. Seems my answer(s) were pretty incorrect :( Thanks for your help ColinJF very much appreciated!
 

Agi

Smash Lord
Joined
Jul 27, 2008
Messages
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Location
SE Washington
Well,what you got is dy/dx = 4y. The first thing you want to do is separate the variables, meaning get all the y's on one side and the x's on the other. So, first divide both sides by y and multiply both sides by dx, giving:

dy/y = 4dx

Now integrate both sides, yielding:

ln(y) = 4x + C

To get y by itself, raise everything to the e (e^ln(y) = y). Now you have:

y = e^(4x + C)

This can be expanded to:

y = (e^4x)(e^C)

Now e^C is really just any constant, just like C by itself is, so you can just change e^C to C, giving the final answer:

y = Ce^4x
Ah... thank you. Although my reply is a bit belated... this does help me to see things in a different way.
 

GOD!

Smash Ace
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whats 0^0?

lol :)
I actually asked a friend about it and he said that it was close to zero.. I have no idea how he got that, I just thought that was a good question.
 

Agi

Smash Lord
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Messages
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Location
SE Washington
whats 0^0?

lol :)
I actually asked a friend about it and he said that it was close to zero.. I have no idea how he got that, I just thought that was a good question.
0^0 is undefined, as when taken literally it reads 0/0. This is why everything else to the 0 power is 1.
 

GOD!

Smash Ace
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it's actually not undefined. . if you have a proof of it?
My sister had a friend who was a math major and he tried to explain it to me using some series, it's not undefined though.
 

Fly_Amanita

Master of Caribou
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0^0 is an indeterminate form, but in the majority of situations in which 0^0 occurs, it is reasonable to define it as 1.
 

AltF4

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Wow! I kind of forgot about this thread. I'll try to post here more often...


GOD!

It is undefined. In general, at least. In specific problems, you can have it "sort of" equal to 1. L'Hopital's Rule is kind of an example of that. So in some cases, it's not bad to think of 0/0 canceling out and becoming 1. But strictly speaking it is undefined.
 

Death

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Two fire towers are located 100 km apart on high hills T and R. The bearing from T to R is north east. A fire F is observed from tower T at N10E and from tower R at N75W. The town of Pretty Valley, at point V, is on a bearing of N25E from T and S70W from R. The observers report the wind is blowing the fire directly toward Pretty Valley at a rate of 8 km/h. How many hours do the officials have to evacuate the town?

Do I assume that the angle from T to R is 45 degrees?
 

GOD!

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Wow! I kind of forgot about this thread. I'll try to post here more often...


GOD!

It is undefined. In general, at least. In specific problems, you can have it "sort of" equal to 1. L'Hopital's Rule is kind of an example of that. So in some cases, it's not bad to think of 0/0 canceling out and becoming 1. But strictly speaking it is undefined.
Um do you have a proof of it? I'd be interested in that. I know you're smart, but until I see a proof I don't want to take the word of a guy on the internet over a math major from college.

And I know what a limit is, but you can't use l'hospitals rule to evaluate a specific point anyway. Honestly, I can't see how it should be undefined. no zero in denominator.. Demoninator equals one actually.. and definitely the answer isn't infinity. MY math teacher didn't know but he's not the brightest guy anyway.
 

ColinJF

Smash Ace
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Dec 21, 2007
Messages
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This is question of definition, so you aren't going to be seeing any "proofs", but rather a discussion of why 0^0 should be defined to be a particular value--or not.

On an elementary level, we want exponentiation to have these two properties (among other properties):

(1) 0^a = 0 for all a != 0
(2) a^0 = 1 for all a != 0

Now, if we try to extend these two properties for a = 0, notice how they conflict. Property (1) would give you that 0^0 = 0, and property (2) would give you that 0^0 = 1. This is why 0^0 is simply undefined; it would be impossible to define it in such a way that it satisfies all of the properties that we expect about exponentiation. This has nothing to do with L'Hospital's Rule; it is merely a consideration of definition.

However, in some contexts, it is worth it to throw out one of these two properties in order to simplify things. Let me give you an example.

Sometimes in mathematics, we consider a "power series". A power series is a series of the form

f(x) = a[0] + a[1](x - c) + a[2](x - c)^2 + a[3](x - c)^3 + ...

This is pretty long, so when we talk about power series a lot, we prefer to write one down using summation notation:

f(x) = sum of ( a[n](x - c)^n ) from n = 0 to infinity

However, notice that under this version, if we evaluate f(c) we end up with a factor of 0^0 in the first term, so we can't use this simplified expression for all x unless we define 0^0 to be 1. So, in order to use this simplified expression, we define 0^0 to be 1 when we talk about power series, or most other series involving 0^0.
 

AltF4

BRoomer
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Um do you have a proof of it? I'd be interested in that. I know you're smart, but until I see a proof I don't want to take the word of a guy on the internet over a math major from college.

And I know what a limit is, but you can't use l'hospitals rule to evaluate a specific point anyway. Honestly, I can't see how it should be undefined. no zero in denominator.. Demoninator equals one actually.. and definitely the answer isn't infinity. MY math teacher didn't know but he's not the brightest guy anyway.
Hey! I have a minor in Math! :)

(I do)
 

GOD!

Smash Ace
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Hey! I have a minor in Math! :)

(I do)
I believe it. lol you're probably some homeless guy who goes to and internet cafe and acts all smart to try and feel worth something, even though you can't read english. I guess you're parents should have loved you more. =)

Jk. I believe you about the math minor. I'll just go look on wikipedia and if there's no page I'll make one up. Also is there some name for this problem (0^0)? I know a lot of graphs have names (like parametric equations that form nice shapes) and some equations do ( like the 1-1+1-1+1-1....=1 equation). Maybe I could name this after me and collect royalties from every textbook publishing country in the world!!

ColinF: power series approximate the function using limits!!!! we already know the limit.. which is one.
Also the properties are not universal; they are observations made that hold true usually: ( I also don't know why used used a factorial symbol?)

1) a^0 = 1 (for all a =/= 0)
2) 0^a = 0 (for all a =/= 0)

These are the true definitions it seems to me. I hope I haven't broken any math laws, but taking two properties from a 5th grade math textbooks and saying something is undefined doesn't seem right; logically I don't your (1) and (2) can be real. If they were true, then 0^0 couldn't be undefined. Like saying "this is a lie."
If both were false (and mine were true), 0^0 could be 0, 1 , undefined, or Qw231^4..

I hope I haven't treaded on too many mathematicians toes..
 

ColinJF

Smash Ace
Joined
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Messages
712
ColinF: power series approximate the function using limits!!!! we already know the limit.. which is one.
The "use" of power series has nothing to do with what I was talking about, and although power series do involve taking a limit (in order to sum them), that is irrelevant to the way they involve 0^0. The general issue is that we want to write down series in which 0^0 being 1 simplifies the expression, so we define it to be 1.


Also the properties are not universal; they are observations made that hold true usually: ( I also don't know why used used a factorial symbol?)

1) a^0 = 1 (for all a =/= 0)
2) 0^a = 0 (for all a =/= 0)

These are the true definitions it seems to me. I hope I haven't broken any math laws, but taking two properties from a 5th grade math textbooks and saying something is undefined doesn't seem right; logically I don't your (1) and (2) can be real. If they were true, then 0^0 couldn't be undefined. Like saying "this is a lie."
If both were false (and mine were true), 0^0 could be 0, 1 , undefined, or Qw231^4..

I hope I haven't treaded on too many mathematicians toes..
First of all, != means "is not equal to"; it is not a factorial symbol.

Like everything in math, exponentiation has to be defined somehow. To define it, we write down a bunch of properties we want exponentiation to have, and then constructs a function that satisfies those properties. Construction of exponentiation is better suited for a math class than this post, but suffice it to say that the two properties I listed are going to be derivable from any basic axioms you lay forward for exponentiation; they are not, as you claim, mere "observations".

We do not observe that 1 + 1 = 2. It is the definition of addition combined with the construction of the natural numbers that make it so. It is not something we "observe". Exponentiation is no different. We do not observe taking numbers to powers; it is something we construct, and we construct it by defining a function that satisfies certain properties that we lay down.

In order to make a consistent set of properties of exponentiation, it is necessary that either 0^0 be undefined, or that a special exception is made for it. Most mathematicians prefer to leave it undefined except when working on particular things (like power series), when they might define to be 1 for convenience. However, in the most general sense, it is undefined. This has nothing to do with limits, L'Hospital's Rule, or any aspect of calculus; it is far more basic.

Also I feel as though you have been pretty rude to the people who have tried to answer your question. For the record, I'm studying mathematical physics (undergraduate), but that's immaterial; this is a community thread and you should not be expecting people to present credentials to you.

For more information on 0^0 you may find the Wikipedia page helpful, but I would assume you have already been there. I have tried to give an elementary presentation of why 0^0 is undefined here though.
 

GOD!

Smash Ace
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The "use" of power series has nothing to do with what I was talking about, and although power series do involve taking a limit (in order to sum them), that is irrelevant to the way they involve 0^0. The general issue is that we want to write down series in which 0^0 being 1 simplifies the expression, so we define it to be 1.




First of all, != means "is not equal to"; it is not a factorial symbol.

Like everything in math, exponentiation has to be defined somehow. To define it, we write down a bunch of properties we want exponentiation to have, and then constructs a function that satisfies those properties. Construction of exponentiation is better suited for a math class than this post, but suffice it to say that the two properties I listed are going to be derivable from any basic axioms you lay forward for exponentiation; they are not, as you claim, mere "observations".

We do not observe that 1 + 1 = 2. It is the definition of addition combined with the construction of the natural numbers that make it so. It is not something we "observe". Exponentiation is no different. We do not observe taking numbers to powers; it is something we construct, and we construct it by defining a function that satisfies certain properties that we lay down.

In order to make a consistent set of properties of exponentiation, it is necessary that either 0^0 be undefined, or that a special exception is made for it. Most mathematicians prefer to leave it undefined except when working on particular things (like power series), when they might define to be 1 for convenience. However, in the most general sense, it is undefined. This has nothing to do with limits, L'Hospital's Rule, or any aspect of calculus; it is far more basic.

Also I feel as though you have been pretty rude to the people who have tried to answer your question. For the record, I'm studying mathematical physics (undergraduate), but that's immaterial; this is a community thread and you should not be expecting people to present credentials to you.

For more information on 0^0 you may find the Wikipedia page helpful, but I would assume you have already been there. I have tried to give an elementary presentation of why 0^0 is undefined here though.
Obviously the definition of 0^x is not 0 because there is an exception. If you use a power series to solve anything it is only an approximation, so I don't know why you would mention it you just wanted to simplify the expression.

Math is good in that it is in everything and is always true; people cannot write down "properties they want exponentiation to have", because exponentiation is nothing contrived by people. The properties of those functions are rules with an exception (at x=0). If those were both true, it would then be defined twice, and not undefined.

I'm not trying to be rude, I'm trying to stimulate conversation.. I didn't ask for credentials or expect them. I still don't know why you told me yours; I didn't ask or expect anything.. the personal stuff here is unwanted.

Moving along..
x^0 = x^(1-1) = (x^1)/(x^1)

From here, if enter 0, the answer is 1. If you cancel the top and bottom, the answer is 1.

0^x = 0^(x+1)/(0^1) = undefeined
Just thoughts..
 

metalmonstar

Smash Lord
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I was wondering how would you change x^2 + y^2 = z^2 into spherical and cylindrical coordinates?
 

ColinJF

Smash Ace
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Dec 21, 2007
Messages
712
Obviously the definition of 0^x is not 0 because there is an exception. If you use a power series to solve anything it is only an approximation, so I don't know why you would mention it you just wanted to simplify the expression.
Obviously you do not understand what I am getting at with the power series example at all. It has nothing to do with approximation. Let me try to make it even simpler by removing the calculus aspect. Consider the following function which I call f.

f(x) = 1 + 2x + 3x^2 + 4x^3

This is just a very simple function, but it's fairly long, we we might want to make it simpler by writing it as

f(x) = sum of ( (n + 1) * x^n ) from n = 0 to 3

This doesn't look simpler in text, but it is simpler with the actual notation.

Anyway, notice how with my new version of f(x), you can't evaluate it at 0. Let's write down what f(0) gives you for my new definition of f.

f(0) = 1 * 0^0 + 2 * 0^1 + 3 * 0 ^ 2 + 4 * 0 ^ 3

Notice how this contains a 0^0 in the first term. So, in order to use my new version of f(x), we have to define 0^0 to be 1. This is why sometimes mathematicians will define 0^0 to be 1, but except in particular contexts like this, it is generally left undefined.

Math is good in that it is in everything and is always true; people cannot write down "properties they want exponentiation to have", because exponentiation is nothing contrived by people. The properties of those functions are rules with an exception (at x=0). If those were both true, it would then be defined twice, and not undefined.
Exponentiation is very much something constructed by people. Where do you think it comes from? What a^n means for natural number n is obvious:

a^n = a * a * a * ... * a where there are n copies of a

However, to raise a to something other than a natural number, we need to get more creative. For a rational number, we define a^(1/m) so that a^(1/m) = the principal m-th root of a. But what about an irrational number? A complex number? These are all things we construct, and how do we know what their values should be? The way we decide it is by writing down the properties of exponentiation that we like, and then making a more general function that also has those properties.

Two of the properties we like are the ones I listed above. They do not apply when a = 0, because if you extend them to a = 0, you get a contradiction. As a result, either we must leave 0^0 undefined, or we must explicitly give it a value. The choice is ARBITRARY. There is no "right" choice. It is a question of definition and one you make for the particular work you are working on. As I said, most mathematicians prefer to leave it undefined except when working with series. (Again, this has nothing to do with calculus or approximation per se.)

Moving along..
x^0 = x^(1-1) = (x^1)/(x^1)

From here, if enter 0, the answer is 1. If you cancel the top and bottom, the answer is 1.
The problem here is that by writing down x^0 on the left, you have already slapped a restriction on x that it is not equal to 0, since 0^0 is undefined. You could only carry out the manipulation you go on to do if you have already defined 0^0 to be 1, so you are not proving anything.

I believe that addresses all of your questions.

I was wondering how would you change x^2 + y^2 = z^2 into spherical and cylindrical coordinates?
This is just a matter of knowing the definition of spherical and cylindrical coordinates.

For spherical coordinates, replace x by r cos A sin B, replace y by r sin A cos B, and replace z by r cos B. Then just simplify the expression.

For cylindrical coordinates, replace x by p cos A, replace y by p sin A, and z is unchanged. Then simplify.

So really, this is purely a matter of knowing the definition. If you forget it, just check Wikipedia.
 

Kinzer

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Yay my second time in this thread, and this time I have absolutely no idea how to work with it.

Something about Tangents in the Trigonometry field... strange that my GEOMETRY teacher would give me such an assignment but alas I have to do it and I need anybody's help who can help me figure this out.

My problem is I have the measures of the opposite and adjacent segments, but I cannot figure out how to find how to inverse the formula so I can work with those two numbers and find out how much the angle opposite to the segment measures.

It also doesn't help that my teacher didn't really clearly explain to it and AFAIK there is no way to figure it out without having a scientific calculator... which I don't have at a hand sadly.

Please help?
 

DtJ Jungle

Check out my character in #GranblueFantasy
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How many terms of this series do i need to add in order to find teh sum to the indicated accuracy (error <.01)

sumation (N=1 to infinity) of (-1)^(n-1)*ne^-n

thanks :D
 

GOD!

Smash Ace
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How many terms of this series do i need to add in order to find teh sum to the indicated accuracy (error <.01)

sumation (N=1 to infinity) of (-1)^(n-1)*ne^-n

thanks :D
Power series... gotta love it.

The formula is that l error [of the power series to n terms] l <(or equal to) the evaluation at the n+1th term..

This only works for an alternating series and convergent series, by the way:

Power series are approximations, so the error of approximation when using, say 5 terms, would be less than that evaluation of the 6th power series term.

So if l error l < .01, then you would find the value of n which would make n/ (e^n) less than (or equal to) the error, .01.

plugging in some values:

n(1)= 1/e = .368

....

n(3) = 3/(e^3) = .149

n(4) = 4/(e^4) = .0733

n(5) = 5/(e^5) = .0337

n(6)= 6/(e^6) = .0149

n(7) = 7/(e^7) = .00639 = <.01

therefore, because the value of the seventh term to be added on is less than the av of the error, then only 6 terms (one less) are needed.

Hope this helps, its a little confusing.
And it ONLY works if the series is alternating AND it converges.

EDIT: Kinzer, if you are talking about triangles (which I gathered) and are in geometry, you probably need a scientific calculator.. The sine and cosine functions are used to find the angles and sides of these types of problems.
 

Corpsecreate

Smash Lord
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Yay my second time in this thread, and this time I have absolutely no idea how to work with it.

Something about Tangents in the Trigonometry field... strange that my GEOMETRY teacher would give me such an assignment but alas I have to do it and I need anybody's help who can help me figure this out.

My problem is I have the measures of the opposite and adjacent segments, but I cannot figure out how to find how to inverse the formula so I can work with those two numbers and find out how much the angle opposite to the segment measures.

It also doesn't help that my teacher didn't really clearly explain to it and AFAIK there is no way to figure it out without having a scientific calculator... which I don't have at a hand sadly.

Please help?
It would be a good idea for you to remember SOH CAH TOA. Its a short way of remembering what formula's to use to caluclate angles and lengths involving right triangles.

SOH means Sinx = Opposite / Hypotenuse
CAH means Cosx = Adjacent / Hypotenuse
TOA means Tanx = Opposite / Adjacent

So say you have this:
A = 3
O = 4
H = 5


Sinx = 4/5 = 0.8

So you know that Sinx is 0.8 but what is x? To find x you then have to use inverse Sin 0.8 which on calculator is shown as Sin^-1. If you dont have a scientific calculator then your going to be in some pain. I can show you a way (although not very effective its the best I can give you) of figuring out the angle without a calculator. You will need a Compass, Ruler and Protractor.

Draw this picture (or just print this picture). The picture should be fairly easy to understand, what you would do is look for a line that is vertically 0.8cm long. After you have done that, draw a line from that point to the centre of the circle and measure the angle it creates. This picture shows what you would be looking for. The green line is 0.8cm and the Red line is the line you draw to the centre. The angle it creates is the angle your looking for.

The same is applied with Cosx and Tanx except that the line you look for thats 0.8cm is different. With Cosx its the Blue horizontal line and Tanx its the length of the line created by the tangent on the edge of the circle (as shown in the 1st pictore). So you would figure out the angle based on what your protractor says and how well you can draw a perfect circle, not the best method but its the only way that I know how to calc angles without a calculator.

There are also a few "Exact Values" that would be useful for you to remember.

Sin0 = 0, Sin30 = 0.5, Sin45 = Sqrt2 / 2, Sin60 = Sqrt3 / 2, Sin90 = 1.
Cos0 = 1, Cos30 = Sqrt3 / 2, Cos45 = Sqrt2 / 2, Cos60 = 0.5, Cos90 = 0.
Tan0 = 0, Tan30 = Sqrt3 /3, Tan45 = 1, Tan60 = Sqrt3, Tan90 = Undefined.

There is also another method that works. NOTICE: THIS ONLY WORKS IF YOUR ANGLES ARE IN RADIANS. To convert Degrees to radians do this:

50 Degrees = 50Pi / 180 = 0.872664626
12 Degrees = 12Pi / 180 = 0.209439501
X Degrees = XPi / 180

Converting from radians to degrees is backwards:

0.872664626 Radians = (0.872664626 x 180) / Pi = 50 Degrees
0.209439501 Radians = (0.209439501 x 180) / Pi = 12 Degrees
X Radians = 180X / Pi

If your calculator doesnt have an inbuilt value for Pi, use 3.14159265358979323 as your value :D
Sinx = x - x^3/3! + x^5/5! - x^7/7! + x^9/9!....x^n/n!
Cosx = 1 - x^2/2! + x^4/4! - x^6/6! + x^8/8!....x^n/n!
Tanx (x^2 > 1) = Pi/2 - 1/x + 1/3x^3 - 1/5x^5 + 1/7x^7...1/nx^n.

Inverse Sinx (abs x < 1) = x + (1/2)*(x^3/3)+(1*3/2*4)*(x^5/5)+(1*3*5/2*4*6)*(x^7/7)...
Inverse Cosx (abs x < 1) = Pi/2 - Inverse Sinx = Pi/2 - (1/2)*(x^3/3)+(1*3/2*4)*(x^5/5)...
Inverse Tanx (abs x < 1) = x - x^3/3 + x^5/5 - x^7/7 +...
Inverse Tanx (x >= 1) = Pi/2 - 1/x + 1/3x^3 - 1/5x^5 + 1/7x^7...
Inverse Tanx (x <= -1) = -Pi/2 - 1/x + 1/3x^3 - 1/5x^5 +1/7x^7...

If you dont know what 3! is, its 3 factorial which means 3 x 2 x 1. 7! is 7 x 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1. etc etc.

If you want to find Sin^-1 of 0.8 as in my example you would do this.

0.8 + (1/2)*(0.8^3/3)+(3/8)*(0.8^5/5)+(15/48)*(0.8^7/7)+(105/384)*(0.8^9/9)... the more times you do it the more accurate your answer will be. Doing in up to the amount ive done here will give you 0.9233493136 Radians. Convert to Degrees gives you 52.9040 Degrees. Sin^-1 0.8 is 53.1301 Degrees so its pretty close :D

Also would be good to remember that Tanx = Sinx / Cosx. Hope all that helps!
 

[oni]LoKo

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I'm finishing up Cal atm, but I've been seeking some help and wouldn't mind helping out others...love math and my major is Engineering/Compooter Science, so yeh..math~~~~
 

The Sauce Boss

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k i need some halp on this one.

1. A solid has a circular base of radius 3. If every plane cross section perpendicular to the x-axis is an equilateral triangle then its volume is....

I know I am going to be integrating 1/2(b)(h) from -3 to 3. Is base (b) the equation of the circle? And what is height (h) going to be ?
 

AltF4

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Well, which way does the X axis go? This sort of thing is kind of hard without diagrams.

...is it just supposed to be a cone?

And when you say "you know that you're going to be integrating from -3 to 3." do you mean that this was given to you in the problem?
 

Kinzer

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Post of epic proportions (no pun intended).
Thank you for taking your time.

I think I understand these triginometric ratios a lot better now.

I just don't understand how they would encourage that you use a calculator to find answers, but alas I suppose I can't let it bother me.
 

GOD!

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k i need some halp on this one.

1. A solid has a circular base of radius 3. If every plane cross section perpendicular to the x-axis is an equilateral triangle then its volume is....

I know I am going to be integrating 1/2(b)(h) from -3 to 3. Is base (b) the equation of the circle? And what is height (h) going to be ?
if your base is b, height will be b* sqrt(3) / 2. So if you write the equation as a function, you say that:

v = 2* integral from 0 to 3 ( (sqrt(3) *b^2)/(4) dx).

and if x^2 + y^2 = 9, then you could say base = 2 * sqrt (9-x^2)

Leaving you with:

2* sqrt(3) * S (0 to 3) 9-x^2 dx.

Which you can easily figure out.
 

zeldspazz

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Ug I'm gonna sound stupid but I dont get this...
I'm taking an accel math class, so I'm in seventh grade and taking 8th and 9th stuff and this is so confusing, we're dividing double binomials (at least thats what my teacher calles them) and I dont get it....(if a number is next to a variable, its to that power)

99xy+12a5-63b4+20c7
11xy3-4a3+7b2-10c4

I dont get it, it's melting my brain....can someone help me? I need to understand it, I can't just have an answer please =P

Edit: I have to go soon, so if someone answers before I'm back, thank you to that person
 

The Sauce Boss

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if your base is b, height will be b* sqrt(3) / 2. So if you write the equation as a function, you say that:

v = 2* integral from 0 to 3 ( (sqrt(3) *b^2)/(4) dx).

and if x^2 + y^2 = 9, then you could say base = 2 * sqrt (9-x^2)

Leaving you with:

2* sqrt(3) * S (0 to 3) 9-x^2 dx.

Which you can easily figure out.
thanks:bee:. I couldnt figure out what height was.... which shouldve been the easiest part lol. (I get it now, 30-60-90 triangle blah blah)
 

2.72

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It's true; 0.99... = 1. There are a few classic proofs of this.

Proof 1: (1/9) = 0.11..., so 9*(1/9) = 0.99..., but 9*(1/9) = 1.

Proof 2: What's 1-0.99...? Since 0.99... is larger than 0.9..9 (ie zero point finitely many nines), 1-0.99... < 0.0..01 (ie zero point finitely many zeroes, followed by a one). It follows that 1-0.99... is less than every positive number, so it must be 0.

The most direct proof uses geometric series. If you know about them, tell me and I'll give it to you.

EDIT: Zeldspazz, you certainly do not sound stupid. I'm a math major in college and I don't know how to do that off the top of my head. If you want help with single-variable long division I can certainly do that.

I found a site that might help.
 

POKE40

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Ug I'm gonna sound stupid but I dont get this...
I'm taking an accel math class, so I'm in seventh grade and taking 8th and 9th stuff and this is so confusing, we're dividing double binomials (at least thats what my teacher calles them) and I dont get it....(if a number is next to a variable, its to that power)

99xy+12a5-63b4+20c7
11xy3-4a3+7b2-10c4

I dont get it, it's melting my brain....can someone help me? I need to understand it, I can't just have an answer please =P

Edit: I have to go soon, so if someone answers before I'm back, thank you to that person
You wrote the equation incorrectly. There should be spaces between each number

Is it supposed to be like this:


This is how it should be^^^^

Now you simply divide the constant number and subtract the variable exponents.
And you receive:

1/(9y^2) - 3a^2 - 9b^2 - 2c^4
 

zeldspazz

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You wrote the equation incorrectly. There should be spaces between each number

Is it supposed to be like this:


This is how it should be^^^^

Now you simply divide the constant number and subtract the variable exponents.
And you receive:

1/(9y^2) - 3a^2 - 9b^2 - 2c^4
That's not what my teacher wrote, I typed it exactly as it was on my paper =\ and my teacher got a diff answer than you. I'll post what her answer was one sec.

Edit: Original problem:
99xy - 12a^5 - 63b^4 + 20c^7
11xy^3 - 4a^3 + 7b^2 - 10c^4

The answer my teacher got:
9y^-2 + 3a^2 - 9b^2 - 2c^3

How did my teacher get that answer?
 

Doraki

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Your teacher is wrong.
You can easily plug any value you want into the variables (like x=y=a=b=c=1), reduce the two expressions, and see that they aren't the same values.
 

2.72

Smash Ace
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Messages
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Zeldspazz:

Poke40 is right, then. The equation he gave simplifies to your teacher's solution. I don't believe that what you wrote will simplify further. Thankfully, that's a much simpler problem.

Actually, he forgot one thing: the first term should be (99xy)/(11xy^3).
 
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