The rights are already there, where are you getting new rights from. This act simply codifies Roe.
The "new right" point was only there for completeness. The relevant point here is that they're changing the level of enforcement.
That's what I meant, and it does qualify where do you get the idea that it doesn't?
Furthermore this is moot anyway because they're not creating a new right, the necessary rights are already there it's simply being codified. Furthermore their right to do this falls under the 14th amendment and the commerce clause of the constitution. Both 12 and 13 in the Act address this concern.
http://www.govtrack.us/congress/billtext.xpd?bill=s110-1173
You seem to be intentionally missing the second part of that statement every time...
As I've said before... Congress can only codify rights and write legislation to enforce existing ones
up to their level of enforcement.
In other words, congress can't just randomly say, "we applying rational basis even though the SCOTUS said strict scrutiny" or the reverse, or anything similar. That was my point THE ENTIRE TIME, since I brought this up (though it was implicit until my response to you because I assumed a basic understanding of constitutional jurisprudence).
No, you're looking for something that isn't there. Roe is still in tact, however it's been regulated, not overruled.
As I stated before, only the right to abortion was upheld along with the basic rational, all the mechanics of enforcement were explicitly overruled.
They entirely gutted the decision.
No Roe was not gutted, not only am I disagreeing with you, court justices disagree with you. The Roe decision still maintains it's purpose. It has more weight then in just name, because of it women can't be denied an abortion, they can only be regulated.
So Roe hasn't been overruled it's just been moderated.
The justices disagree with you because they have a really weird understanding of Stare Decisis (see: BS).
Seriously, take a con law class, you'll see they pull this all the time, gutting a case's precidental power without actually explicitly overruling it.
For all LEGAL effects and purposes, it's the same as the case being overruled, it's ruling is no longer controlling, even though it's technically on the books as "good law".
I can rattle off tons of cases that this happened to in the past, the separation of church and state cases are especially infamous in this regard.
Because they're dependent on the mother to receive those requirements. We characterize life (Personhood) as having the ability for consciousness, however if that ability isn't there how can we assume it's a human life?
Unless then we have to rethink what we consider as human life. in which case there will never be a consensus so the whole point is meaningless.
You characterize it that way, most pro-lifers fundamentally disagree, hence the the persistent vegetative state argument. Really, it's not the consensus, and I doubt it's even the majority opinion.
And no it isn't meaningless, then it becomes a question of convincing pro-lifers that your understanding of personhood is superior.
The fetus is only alive because the mother's body keeps it alive. In my last post I used the analogy to keeping the brain dead using hospital machines. We can keep people alive for a long time with no brain function, but they are still considered dead. If not having a brain wasn't an issue for a fetus then an abortion wouldn't be a problem, it would just continue to develop outside the womb.
...
Again, the fetus is still able to perform all the functions of life, whereas a brain-dead person isn't. The machines do not change that fact, even with mechanical assistance, a brain-dead person cannot perform all the functions of life.
The fact that it uses a symbiotic (from species prospective, parasitic for the individual organism) relationship doesn't change the fact that the fetus still is able to perform all the functions of life.