the first study's results are invalid because they don't quantify the differences in training regiments in subjects (the widespread belief that women are inherently weaker than men will invariably cause women to train to achieve lower results than men, which skews the data)
the second study measures the amount of muscle fibers in male and female subjects, but the result is, again, meaningless without actually comparing to previous physical activity
the third study accounts for trained women athletes, and concludes the the women athletes are even then rarely as strong as the men, but doesn't actually define under what circumstances the men in the study are considered to be "untrained", nor does it define the circumstances under which the women trained their grip strength (it notably mentions that handball requires "high grip strength", which is vague at best and kind of laughable at worst)
the wikipedia article takes a vague stance; it notes what the trends are, but maintains that they are trends (as opposed to physical laws), and hypothesizes that men have a greater capacity for muscular hypertrophy - while it links this to the presence of testosterone, it fails to note that the ovaries in females also produce testosterone, and that the amount of testosterone produced is linked to physical activity
like you googled all of that stuff real quick but it sort of sounds like you either didn't read it or didn't stop to consider what it means and/or how it could be wrong
What would be your criteria then, for men being physically stronger? Do we need to test two 25 year olds who have been training since birth every day til they collapse only to repeat the procedure the next day? You are moving goalposts- there's no reason to believe that's there's any value to the statement "The strongest a women could potentially be is as the strongest a man could potentially be"; meanwhile, men being
in general stronger than women has clear consequences in every day life, and male athletes
almost always being stronger than female athletes leads to them being better fighters the majority of the time given equal skill. Those things are real questions worth asking, and have already been answered with men being physically stronger in any equal, practical situation. Basically, the only scenario where this is worth questioning is a stupid, pointless scenario, one that leads to a stupid, pointless question.
There's no reason to believe that if trained females are weaker than a portion of the population of untrained men that those women, if they trained harder, would see a boost in performance greater than the men would if
they trained. Strength training, like many kinds of training, function on the property of diminishing returns. If men have higher lower bounds for strength, it's not an unsafe assumption that an equally high amount of training would provide
at least equal returns, giving higher total strength. While there's no clearly defined upper limit for strength, setting any possible boundary clearly places women at much less likely to reach that goal, or even come close.
Also, do you really just want hard raw numbers? Here. Body building. It's not scientific, no, but you seem to be the kind of person that ignores scientific consensus anyway. Inb4 "but these doesn't take into account that the strongest potential woman just didn't get into strength training and as such she was never able to match men's powerlifting etc etc". Again, not a practical criticism.
http://www.powerliftingwatch.com/records/raw/women-world
http://www.powerliftingwatch.com/records/raw/world (men's; scroll down to drug tested results- for some reason there is no separation for drug tested results for women)