adumbrodeus
Smash Legend
Since I can't post in the the proving grounds (*rages at how Dre. is allowed back there and not me, and it's all some conspiracy to discredit theists and corrupt our precious bodily fluids*) and there is no longer any debate allowed in the social thread, even though this is technically an answer which should end the discussion I'll post it as a separate thread.
Here's the thing, the definition of conspiracy to commit murder isn't actually "conspiring to commit a particular murder or murders" it's essentially "conspiracy to commit something which is legally murder".
What's the difference? Well, to be murder you have to have "malice aforethought" in other words, you either have to be planning to murder somebody or your actions have to be taken in grossly negligent disregard for human life. For example, planning to shoot somebody in the back of the head and throwing an anvil into a large crowd off a 30 story building have the same amount of malice aforethought.
So how does this apply to this case? Well, legally speaking because he is attempting to "rough him up" by proxy which intends to cause physical harm, I'm almost positive there's malice aforethought present here due to gross disregard for human life. So conspiracy to commit an action with malice aforethought and somebody dies because of it it's definitely murder. Depending on the degree of the beating, it could even be conspiracy to commit murder under the same standards if he survived.
Now, this is assuming a harsh enough beating that malice aforethought would be present. The conspiracy probably has malice aforethought unless some pretty strict limits were set, but the malice aforethought in the beater would be determined by the severity of the beating.
Granted, I can't speak on other countries, but at least as far as US law is concerned whether or not something is conspiracy to commit murder is dependent on whether there is malice aforethought present, just like in actual murder. Since conspiracy does not depend on an actual death, this is regardless of whether or not somebody actually dies.
Dre said:How is there nothing to debate?
Someone is getting charged for conspiring to something that they did not actually conspire to. How is that not controversial?
Here's the thing, the definition of conspiracy to commit murder isn't actually "conspiring to commit a particular murder or murders" it's essentially "conspiracy to commit something which is legally murder".
What's the difference? Well, to be murder you have to have "malice aforethought" in other words, you either have to be planning to murder somebody or your actions have to be taken in grossly negligent disregard for human life. For example, planning to shoot somebody in the back of the head and throwing an anvil into a large crowd off a 30 story building have the same amount of malice aforethought.
So how does this apply to this case? Well, legally speaking because he is attempting to "rough him up" by proxy which intends to cause physical harm, I'm almost positive there's malice aforethought present here due to gross disregard for human life. So conspiracy to commit an action with malice aforethought and somebody dies because of it it's definitely murder. Depending on the degree of the beating, it could even be conspiracy to commit murder under the same standards if he survived.
Now, this is assuming a harsh enough beating that malice aforethought would be present. The conspiracy probably has malice aforethought unless some pretty strict limits were set, but the malice aforethought in the beater would be determined by the severity of the beating.
Granted, I can't speak on other countries, but at least as far as US law is concerned whether or not something is conspiracy to commit murder is dependent on whether there is malice aforethought present, just like in actual murder. Since conspiracy does not depend on an actual death, this is regardless of whether or not somebody actually dies.