Hey Kole, sorry about the late response on this one. The first trick is to see that the function is unbounded; as x approaches 5, the numerator approaches 98, while the denominator approaches 0. Now, all you have to do is see what happens as the function approaches 5 from the left and from the right. From the left, we see that the function gets increasingly negative, as the numerator is positive, but the denominator is negative. From the right, it gets increasingly positive, as both the numerator and denominator are positive. If this isn't clear, just plug in a few values, like x = -4 and x = 6, for example.
Now, this function is clearly continuous (except at x = 5), which means that it will necessarily hit everything between any two y-values. To make this clear: if we draw this graph without lifting our pencil, and we start at -5 and end at +5, it's obvious that we will have to hit the values in between. Because there is a discontinuity at x = 5, we need to look at the range in two ways. From (-infinity, 5) and from (5, infinity), because we clearly must lift our pencil at x = 5.
We'll start with (-infinity, 5). Not sure on your calculus background, but it's not too hard to see that, as x gets increasingly negative, f(x) approaches 1. I can elaborate on this later if you do not see why. This means that (-infinity, 1) is in the range; if you start all the way at left-end of the x-axis, you'll be at 1, and you must draw all the way to -infinity without lifting your pencil. So, hopefully obviously, this means (-infinity, 1) is in your range.
A similar argument for (5, infinity) shows that (1, infinity) is in your range; you start at infinity, and draw all the way to 1.
Now you just need to show that f(x) is never 1, which is doable, albeit not easily. If you just care for a heuristic argument, note that the function is asymptotically approaching 1 from the left and the right; on the left, it is approaching below, and on the right, it is approaching above, and clearly never hits 1. This heuristic reasoning arguably requires a graph in the first place, so it might not be particularly useful. However, once you've shown that f(x) is never 1, it's clear that the range is just:
(-infinity, 1) U (1, infinity), i.e., the entire real line minus {1}.
Hope this helps. If anything is unclear or poorly reasoned, please let me know and I'll try to elaborate or fix the problem.